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Introduction

Introduction

"'Begin at the beginning, and go on till you come to the end: then stop.'"

Alice in Wonderland by Lewis Carroll

This book is designed to help you prepare for and pass the Program Management Professional (PgMP) exam administered by the Project Management Institute (PMI). This certification is growing in popularity and demand in all areas of business. The PMI has experienced explosive growth in membership over the last few years, and more and more organizations are recognizing the importance of program management (and project management) certifications.

Since this book has a laser-sharp focus on the exam objectives, expert project managers and program managers who want to pass the PgMP exam can use this book to ensure that they do not miss any objective. Yet it is not an exam-cram book. The chapters and the sections within each chapter are presented in a logical learning sequence: a topic and a chapter depend only upon the previously covered topics and chapters, and there is no hopping from topic to topic. The concepts and topics, both simple and complex, are clearly explained when they appear the first time. This facilitates stepwise learning, prevents confusion, and makes this book useful for both beginners who want to get up to speed quickly to pass the PgMP exam and for experienced professionals. No prior knowledge of program management is assumed. Prior knowledge of project management is helpful but is not required. Chapter 1 presents an overview of project management in the context of program management and portfolio management to help beginners ramp up quickly.

PMI offers the most-recognized certifications in the field of program management and project management, and this book deals exclusively with its processes, procedures, and methods within the scope of the PgMP exam. You will see that program management consists of many processes, each with its own terminology, tools, and methods. The biggest problem with most of the available literature in program management is that it fails to clearly distinguish between program management and project management and often confuses these two concepts. Accordingly, a two-pronged purpose that you should keep in mind while going through this book is to distinguish between program management and project management, and to clearly see the relationship between the two. For example, you will see processes in program management that have identical or similar names to processes in project management. But they are different processes performed at different levels of management.

Like the PgMP exam, this book is largely based on the following three references:

  • The Standard for Program Management—First Edition

  • A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK® Guide —Third Edition)

  • PgMPSM Examination Specification

Even if you're familiar with another organized program management and project management methodology, don't assume you already know the processes discussed in this book. I strongly recommend that you learn all of the processes—their key inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs. Take the time to understand and memorize these elements and the key terms and their definitions, listed in the glossary and at the end of the chapter in which the term is introduced. Just understanding the definition of a term and the input, output, and tools and techniques of the processes will help you answer quite a few questions. It is possible that you've always done that particular task or used the methodology described but called it by another name. Know the name of each process and its primary purpose.

What Is the PMI and Its PgMP Certification?

The PMI is the leader and the most widely recognized organization in terms of promoting project management best practices. The PMI strives to maintain and endorse standards and ethics in this field and offers publications, training, seminars, chapters, special-interest groups, and colleges to further the project management discipline. The PMI is accredited as an American National Standards Institute (ANSI) standards developer and also has the distinction of being the first organization to have its certification program attain International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 9001 recognition.

The PMI boasts a worldwide membership of more than 230,000, with members from 125 countries. Local PMI chapters meet regularly and allow project managers to exchange information and learn about new tools and techniques of project management or new ways to use established techniques. I encourage you to join a local chapter and get to know other professionals in your field.

The PMI, founded in 1969, first started offering the PMP certification exam in 1984, then added the Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) exam in 2004 and the Program Management Professional (PgMP) exam in 2007. To pass the PgMP exam is one of many requirements for the PgMP credential, which is developed to acknowledge the qualifications of a professional who leads the coordinated management of multiple projects and ensures the ultimate success of a program. However, CAPM and PMP certifications are not required to become eligible for taking the PgMP exam.

Why Become PgMP-Certified?

The following benefits are associated with becoming PgMP-certified:

  • It demonstrates proof of professional achievement.

  • It increases your marketability.

  • It provides greater opportunity for advancement in your field.

  • It raises customer confidence in you and in your company's services.

Demonstrates Proof of Professional Achievement

PgMP certification is a rigorous process that documents your achievements in the field of program management. The exam tests your knowledge of the disciplined approaches, methodologies, and program management practices as described in The Standard for Program Management.

You are required to have at least four years of project management experience and four years of program management experience before sitting for the exam. Your certification assures employers and customers that you are well-grounded in the best practices in the disciplines of project management and program management. It shows that you have the hands-on experience and the mastery of the processes in the disciplines necessary to lead the coordinated management of multiple projects in a program effectively and to motivate teams to produce successful results.

Increases Your Marketability

Many industries are realizing the importance of project management and program management and its role in the organization. They are also seeing that simply proclaiming a head technician to be a "program manager" does not make it so. Program management, just like engineering, information technology, and a host of other trades, has its own specific qualifications and skills. Certification tells potential employers that you have the skills, experience, and knowledge to drive successful programs aligned with the strategic business and other organizational objectives and thereby ultimately improve the organization's bottom line.

A certification will always make you stand out above the competition. If you're certified and you're competing against a program manager without certification, chances are you'll come out as the top pick. Certification tells potential employers you have gone the extra mile. You've spent time studying techniques and methods as well as employing them in practice. Furthermore, it shows dedication to your own professional growth and enhancement and to adhering to and advancing professional standards.

Provides Opportunity for Advancement

PgMP certification displays your willingness to pursue growth in your professional career and shows that you're not afraid of a little hard work to get what you want. Potential employers will interpret your pursuit of this certification as a high-energy, success-driven, can-do attitude on your part. They'll see that you're likely to display these same characteristics on the job, which will help make the company successful. Your certification demonstrates your success-oriented, motivated attitude that will open up opportunities for future career advancements in your current field as well as in new areas you might want to explore.

Raises Customer Confidence

Just as the PgMP certification assures employers that you've got the background and experience to handle program management, it assures customers that they have a competent, experienced program manager at the helm. Certification will help your organization sell customers on your ability to manage their projects and programs. Customers, like potential employers, want the reassurance that those working for them have the knowledge and skills necessary to carry out the duties of the position and that professionalism and personal integrity are of utmost importance. Individuals who hold these ideals will translate their ethics and professionalism to their work. This enhances the trust customers will have in you, which in turn will give you the ability to influence them on important program and project issues.

How to Become PgMP-Certified

You need to fulfill several requirements in order to sit for the PgMP exam. The PMI has detailed the certification process quite extensively at its website. Go to www.pmi.org, and hover over the Professional Development & Careers tab to reveal the Certification Program selection, where you can get the latest information on certification procedures and requirements.

As of this writing, to become PgMP-certified, a candidate must successfully complete the following three-step competency evaluation:

  1. Eligibility for the exam. You are required to document your experience and education in an application that you can submit online at the PMI website. This application will be reviewed to determine your eligibility for the PgMP exam. You should have at minimum four years of project management experience and a bachelor's degree or high school diploma to qualify for this exam. Furthermore, you must have at minimum four years of program management experience if you have a bachelor's degree, or seven years of program management experience if you hold a high school diploma and no bachelor's degree.

  2. The PgMP exam. After you are determined to be eligible for taking the PgMP exam, you'll undergo the second competency evaluation, for which you take an exam based on multiple-choice questions. The exam requires you to demonstrate your ability to apply your knowledge to a variety of situational or scenario-based questions.

  3. Multi-rater assessment. After you pass the exam, the third competency evaluation is performed through the multi-rater assessment in which a team of raters will evaluate your competency to perform tasks that are important to program management as determined by the examination specification. You can select the team members who will make this evaluation.

The exam fee at the time this book is being published is $1,500 for PMI members in good standing and $1,800 for nonmembers. Testing is conducted at Thomson Prometric centers. You can find a center near you on the PMI website. You'll need to bring a form of identification such as a driver's license with you on the test day. You will not be allowed to take any materials with you into the testing center. You will be given a calculator, pencils, and scrap paper. You will turn in all scrap paper, including the notes and squiggles you've jotted during the test, to the center upon completion of the exam.

Your exam score is computed immediately; so you will know at the conclusion of the test whether you've passed. You're given four hours to complete the exam, which consists of 170 randomly generated questions. Only 150 of the 170 questions are scored, and the 20 unscored questions will be dispersed randomly throughout the examination. These 20 questions are used by PMI to determine statistical information and to determine whether they can or should be used on future exams. Because you cannot determine which questions are unscored, answer each question under the assumption that it will be scored. All unanswered questions are scored as wrong answers, and there is no penalty for a wrong answer; that is, you do not get a negative score. Therefore, it's to your benefit to guess an answer if you're stumped.

After you've received your certification, you'll be required to earn 60 professional development units (PDUs) every three years to maintain certification. Approximately one hour of structured learning translates to one PDU. (As an example, attendance at a local chapter meeting earns one PDU.) The PMI website details what activities constitute a PDU, how many PDUs each activity earns, and how to register your PDUs with the PMI to maintain your certification.

Some fast facts about the PgMP exam are listed in the following table for your convenience:

ItemInformation
Number of questionScoreable:150
 Pretest:20
Maximum time allowed4 hours
Question typesScenario-based multiple coice
Minimum education backgrounCategory 1:Bachelor's degree
 Catergory 2:High school diploma
Minimum project management experience4 years (6,000 hours)
Minimum program management experienceCategory 1:4 years (6,000 hours)
 Category 2:7 years (10,500 hours)
Exam fee (given in U.S. dollars; may vary by country)Member: $1,500
 Nonmember: $1,800
Sign code of professional conductYes
Minimum continuing certification requirement60 professional development units (PDUs) every three years


For detailed and up-to-date information, check out the PMI website: www.pmi.org.

Who Should Buy This Book?

If you are serious about passing the PgMP exam, you should buy this book and use it to study for the exam. This book is unique in that it walks you through the program from beginning to end, just as programs (and projects) are performed in practice: initiate, plan, execute, monitor and control, and close. In other words, the book is organized according to process groups, which is consistent with the order followed in the exam specifications by the PMI. Furthermore, the exam objectives covered in each chapter are clearly listed and explained in the beginning of the chapter. All this will avoid confusion and enable you to keep tabs on where you are in your exam prep while studying through this book. As you study, you will learn specific standard processes coupled with real-life scenarios that describe how program managers in different situations handle problems and the various issues all program managers are bound to encounter during their careers.

So, with the primary focus on the PgMP exam, this book is designed to serve the following audiences:

  • Project management and program management practitioners can use this book to prepare for the PgMP exam.

  • Instructors and trainers can use this book as a text book for a course on the PgMP exam prep. Instructional resource material is available from the publisher.

  • Program managers and project managers can use this book as a quick and easy reference to the discipline of program management.

How to Use This Book and CD

We've included several testing features, both in the book and on the companion CD. Following this introduction is an assessment test that you can use to check your readiness for the actual exam. If you are not a beginner, take this test before you start reading the book. It will help you identify the areas you may need to brush up on or pay more attention to. Each answer includes an explanation, and a note telling you in which chapter the related material appears.

With the exception of Chapter 1, which is there to help beginners ramp up quickly for the rest of the book, each chapter begins with a list of exam objectives on which the chapter is focused. These objectives are officially called tasks by the PMI, and these tasks are organized into domains, which are essentially the process groups (except for the first domain, Defining the Program). I have followed the order of the domains published by PMI, but have shuffled around a very few objectives to keep the topics and the subject matter in line with sequential learning and to avoid hopping from topic to topic.

The first section in each chapter is the introduction, in which I establish three main concepts or topics that will be explored in the chapter. Each chapter (after Chapter 1) has the following features:


Exam Objectives.

Exam Objectives. Each exam objective covered in the chapter is fully explained in the beginning of the chapter.


Notes, tips, and warnings.

Notes, tips, and warnings. As you read through a chapter, you will find notes that present additional helpful material related to the topic being described, tips that provide additional quick real-world insight into the topic being discussed, and warnings that highlight issues to watch out for.


Real-world scenarios.

Real-world scenarios. You will notice various "Real-World Scenario" sidebars throughout the book. These are designed to give you insight into how the various processes and topic areas apply to real-world situations. Also remember that the exam itself contains scenario-based questions.


Summary.

Summary. The "Summary" section of each chapter provides the big unified picture while reviewing the important concepts in the chapter.


Exam's-eye view.

The "Exam's Eye View" section highlights the important points in the chapter from the perspective of the exam: the things that you must comprehend, the things that you should watch out for because they might not seem to fit in with the ordinary order of things, and the facts that you should memorize for the exam.


Exam essentials.

This section appears at the end of every chapter to highlight the most essential topics covered in the chapter so that you'll have a solid understanding of those concepts.


Key terms and definitions.

This section lists the important terms and concepts introduced in the chapter, along with their definitions.


Review questions.

Each chapter ends with a list of questions, which has a two-pronged purpose: to help you test your knowledge about the material presented in the chapter and to help you evaluate your ability to answer the exam questions based on the exam objectives covered in the chapter.

As you finish each chapter, answer the review questions and then check to see whether your answers are right—the correct answer appears after each question. You can go back to reread the section that deals with each question you got wrong to ensure that you answer the question correctly the next time you are tested on the material. If you can answer at least 80 percent of the review questions correctly, you can probably feel comfortable moving on to the next chapter. If you can't answer that many correctly, reread the chapter, or the section that seems to be giving you trouble, and try the questions again.

The accompanying CD consists of the following items:


Bonus exams.

In addition to the assessment test and the review questions in the book, you'll find bonus exams on the CD, which add up to a complete practice exam with 171 different questions. Take these practice exams just as if you were actually taking the exam (that is, without any reference material). When you have finished the first exam, move on to the next exam to solidify your test-taking skills. If you get more than 80 percent of the answers correct, you're ready to take the real exam.


Flashcards.

You'll also find more than 100 flashcard questions on the CD for on-the-go review. You can download them to your PC, laptop, or Palm or Pocket PC device for quick and convenient reviewing.

NOTE

Each question in the assessment test, the review questions, and the bonus exams is accompanied by a detailed answer that explains why the correct answer is correct and why the incorrect answers are incorrect. You can use these questions and answers to spot the weaknesses in your preparation and to reinforce important concepts.


Electronic book.

The CD contains the whole book in PDF (Adobe Acrobat), so it can be easily read on any computer. For example, if you are going to travel but still need to study for the PgMP exam and you have a laptop with a CD drive, you can take this entire book with you just by taking the CD.

Tips for Taking the PgMP Exam

Here are some general tips for taking your exam successfully:

  • Visit the PMI website at www.pmi.org for the latest information regarding certification and to find a testing site near you.

  • Get to the exam center early so that you can relax and go through the check-in formalities.

  • At the exam station, read the exam questions carefully. Make sure you know exactly what each question is asking, and don't be tempted to answer too quickly.

  • Unanswered questions score as wrong answers, so it's better to take your best guess than to leave a question unanswered.

  • If you're not sure of an answer, use the process of elimination to identify the obvious incorrect answers first. Narrow down the remaining choices by referring back to the question, looking for key words that might tip you off to the correct answer.

  • You'll be given scratch paper to take with into the exam station. As soon as you get to your place but before you start the exam, write down all the formulas and any other memory aids you used while studying. That way, you can relax a little because you won't have to remember the formulas when you get to those questions on the exam—you can simply look at your scratch paper.

The Exam Objectives

Behind every certification exam, you can be sure to find exam objectives—the broad topics in which the exam developers want to ensure your competency.

As mentioned previously, the PgMP exam objectives are largely organized along the process groups, just like this book. As their names suggest, the last five domains in the exam spec are closely related to the corresponding five process groups: Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing. The first performance domain in the exam spec covers the program definition and tasks, which are largely related to the program initiation. The relative attention given to these six domains in the PgMP exam are listed in the following table:

Domain #Domain NameApproximate Percentage Coverage in the ExamApproximate Number of Scoreable Questions
1Defining the Program1421
2Initiating the Program1218
3Planning the Program2030
4Executing the Program2537
5Controlling the Program2132
6Controlling the Program812
Total 100150


NOTE

Exam objectives are subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the PMI's sole discretion. Please visit the Certification page of the PMI's website, www.pmi.org, for the most current listing of exam objectives.

Best wishes for the exam. Go get 'em!

Assessment Test

  1. You have been offered a job as a program manager in a company that uses matrix management. Matrix management can be used:

    1. In project management

    2. In program management

    3. In both project and program management

    4. Only at the executive level

  2. Which of the following is not included in a program?

    1. Projects

    2. Project portfolio

    3. Operations

    4. Project schedules

  3. You are planning to interview the candidates for the project manager positions available in your program. Your manager has told you to make the candidates aware of the culture of your organization. The organizational culture is reflected by:

    1. Work environment, authority levels of the managers, and policies

    2. Policies, values, and annual revenue

    3. Norms, beliefs, and employee turnover rate

    4. Norms, values, and strategic plan

  4. A structure that displays the breakdown of project deliverables into more-manageable, smaller work components is called:

    1. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

    2. Project breakdown structure (PBS)

    3. Hierarchical work structure (HWS)

    4. Schedule Network Diagram (SND)

  5. You are telling your project managers to prepare the project plans for the projects based on the currently available information and to keep on making it more precise as more information comes in. This technique is called:

    1. Slow start

    2. Continuous improvement

    3. Progressive elaboration

    4. Delphi technique

  6. Program life cycle is defined as a combination of:

    1. Five phases

    2. Five process groups

    3. Nine knowledge areas

    4. Seven phases

  7. You are preparing to offer a seminar on the themes of program management that run through the program life cycle. Those themes are:

    1. Benefits management, program stakeholder management, and PMO

    2. Benefits realization plan, program stakeholder management, and program governance

    3. Benefits management, program stakeholder management, and program governance

    4. Benefits management, program governance, and program control

  8. Your program is in the execution stage. Your manager has asked you to produce a detailed list of the key stakeholders of the program. This list will include:

    1. Project managers, project team members, and customers

    2. Program team members, program sponsor, and facility manager

    3. Program manager, program governance board, and database administrator

    4. Program team members, program director, and chief information officer (CIO)

  9. Program Initiating is a:

    1. Phase

    2. Process group

    3. Knowledge area

    4. Process

  10. Phase one of a program life cycle is called:

    1. Initiating

    2. Planning

    3. Program setup

    4. Pre-program setup

  11. You are at a stage to initiate a program for your company. The program Initiating process group includes:

    1. Initiate Program, Authorize Projects, and Initiate Team

    2. Initiate Program, Authorize Projects, and Develop Program Charter

    3. Initiate Program, Authorize Program, and Initiate Team

    4. Initiate Program, Scope Definition, and Initiate Team

  12. You are at a stage to initiate a program for your company. Your manager, Woody Guthrie, walks into your cubicle saying, "You need to work on the business case before performing this process." What process is Mr. Guthrie is referring to?

    1. Authorize Projects

    2. Develop Program Charter

    3. Initiate Team

    4. Initiate Program

  13. All of the following are output items of the Initiate Program process except:

    1. Program charter

    2. Detailed program scope statement

    3. Project selection criteria

    4. Benefits realization plan

  14. You need to perform a process to determine the program reporting requirements for the projects. Which process is it?

    1. Authorize Projects

    2. Authorize Programs

    3. Initiate Program

    4. Initiate Projects

  15. You are the program manager of a program called The Blue Sky. The program sponsor of The Blue Sky has asked for the program team directory. Which process do you need to perform to generate this document?

    1. Authorize Projects

    2. Initiate Team

    3. Initiate Program

    4. Initiate Projects

  16. The tools and techniques that are common to most of the program management processes include all of the following except:

    1. Policies and procedures

    2. Delphi

    3. Meetings

    4. Expert judgment

  17. You are making a list of tools and techniques that you need to perform the Initiate Program process. The list should include:

    1. Benefits analysis, expert judgment, and project selection methods

    2. Benefits analysis, expert judgment, and benefits realization plan

    3. Benefits analysis, expert judgment, and Ishikawa diagram

    4. Benefits analysis, expert judgment, and project selection criteria

  18. Phase two of a program life cycle is called:

    1. Initiating

    2. Planning

    3. Program setup

    4. Pre-program setup

  19. The program Planning processes that belong to Integration Management include:

    1. Develop Program Management Plan, Resource Planning, and Transition Planning

    2. Develop Program Management Plan, Resource Planning, and Quality Planning

    3. Develop Program Management Plan, Plan Program Contracting, and Transition Planning

    4. Develop Program Management Plan, Resource Planning, and Integrated Change Control

  20. Transition Planning belongs to which of the following knowledge areas?

    1. Integration Management

    2. Human Resource Management

    3. Procurement Management

    4. Communication Management

  21. The program Planning processes that belong to Scope Management include:

    1. Scope Definition and Scope Control

    2. Scope Definition and Create Program Work Breakdown Structure (PWBS)

    3. Scope Definition and Schedule Development

    4. Create Program Work Breakdown Structure (PWBS), and Plan Scope

  22. Your program is in the planning stage. You want to determine the resource requirements for the program. What process will you perform?

    1. Activity Resource Estimating

    2. Resource Planning

    3. Create PWBS

    4. Resource Management

  23. All of the following are input items to the Scope Definition process except:

    1. Program charter

    2. Preliminary program scope statement

    3. Benefits realization plan

    4. Program scope statement

  24. You want to develop a scope management plan for your program. Which process do you need to perform?

    1. Scope Planning

    2. Develop Scope Management plan

    3. Scope Definition

    4. Create Program Work Breakdown Structure

  25. The Scope Definition process generates:

    1. Program work breakdown structure (PWBS)

    2. Scope management plan

    3. Preliminary program scope statement

    4. Benefits realization plan

  26. The components at the lowest level of a program WBS hierarchy are called:

    1. Program packages

    2. Work packages

    3. Schedule activity

    4. Program deliverables

  27. You are performing the Interface Planning process for your program. Which of the following is not a tool or technique that can be used for this process?

    1. Organizational theory

    2. Human resource practices

    3. Pareto diagram

    4. Stakeholder analysis

  28. A resource histogram is a tool used in which of the following processes?

    1. Resource Planning

    2. Resource Optimization

    3. Interface Planning

    4. Develop Program Management Plan

  29. You are going to perform each of the following processes for the first time for your program. Which of these processes will you perform before performing any other one of these processes?

    1. Schedule Development

    2. Transition Planning

    3. Create PWBS

    4. Scope Definition

  30. The schedule management plan is an output of which process?

    1. Schedule Planning

    2. Schedule Definition

    3. Schedule Development

    4. Program Planning

  31. Walking in the hallway, you overheard Dimitry Lennon, the program sponsor of the We Are the World program that is in the planning stage, saying to a program manager, "You need to perform this process to prepare an organizational chart." Which process was Mr. Lennon referring to?

    1. Resource Planning

    2. Human Resource Planning

    3. Schedule Development

    4. Organizational Planning

  32. You are the program manager of the Redwood Forest program, which is at the planning stage. You need to decide whether certain items should be produced in-house or purchased. Which process do you need to perform to make this decision?

    1. Risk Management Planning

    2. Plan Program Contracting

    3. Plan Program Purchases and Acquisitions

    4. Procurement Planning

  33. You have figured out the dependencies among the schedule activities. All these dependencies are of type finish-to-start. Which network diagramming method can you use to display these dependencies?

    1. Arrow diagramming method (ADM) only

    2. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) only

    3. Either the ADM or the PDM

    4. Critical diagramming method (CDM)

  34. You are in the process of determining the program budget. Which program management process do you need to perform?

    1. Develop Program Budget

    2. Resource Planning

    3. Cost Estimating and Budgeting

    4. Plan Program Purchases and Acquisitions

  35. You are managing a book-publishing program. You have decided to procure the book-cover designs from a digital design company for the next fiscal year. At this stage, you are not sure how many books you will publish in the year. What type of contract will be most suitable to sign with the digital design company?

    1. Time and material (T&M)

    2. Cost plus fee (CPF)

    3. Lump sum

    4. Fixed price

  36. Risks originate from:

    1. Uncertainty

    2. Constraints

    3. Quality requirements

    4. Strategic plan

  37. You are performing the Communication Planning process. All of the following are included in Communication Planning except:

    1. Determine the information needs of the program stakeholders

    2. Determine who needs what information and when

    3. Determine the technology requirements for the communication

    4. Issue a request for information (RFI), a request for proposal (RFP), and a request for quotation (RFQ)

  38. You are preparing to perform the Quality Planning process. Before you can perform this process, you will need:

    1. Program scope statement and product description

    2. Program scope statement and operational definitions

    3. Product description and quality checklists

    4. Program cost of quality and quality metrics

  39. Quality metrics are:

    1. Input to Quality Planning

    2. Output of Quality Planning

    3. Output to Perform Quality Assurance

    4. Input to Perform Quality Control

  40. A risk response plan for a program is an output of:

    1. Plan Risk Responses

    2. Identify Risks

    3. Risk Management Planning and Analysis

    4. Qualitative Risk Analysis

  41. You need to develop a contract statement of work for your program. Which process will you perform?

    1. Plan Program Purchases and Acquisitions

    2. Plan Program Contracting

    3. Develop Program Management Plan

    4. Develop Statement of Work

  42. The procurement management plan is an input to which process?

    1. Plan Program Purchases and Acquisitions

    2. Plan Program Contracting

    3. Cost Estimating and Budgeting

    4. Human Resource Planning

  43. Phase three of a program life cycle is called:

    1. Initiating

    2. Establish program infrastructure

    3. Program setup

    4. Pre-program setup

  44. Which of the following Executing processes belongs to the Integration Management knowledge area?

    1. Direct and Manage Program Execution

    2. Information Distribution

    3. Develop Program Team

    4. Perform Quality Assurance

  45. Which of the following processes does not belong to the Executing process group?

    1. Information Distribution

    2. Perform Quality Assurance

    3. Acquire Program Team

    4. Cost Estimating and Budgeting

  46. You are preparing to perform the Develop Program Team process. The output that you can expect from this process includes:

    1. Performance assessment and training plan

    2. Updates to training records and staffing management plan

    3. Performance assessment and improvements

    4. Staffing management plan and training records

  47. The Acquire Program Team process belongs to which process group?

    1. Initiating

    2. Executing

    3. Human Resource

    4. Planning

  48. Work results are output of:

    1. Direct and Manage Program Execution

    2. Develop Program Team

    3. Monitor and Control Program Work

    4. Perform Quality Assurance

  49. Contract negotiation is a tool or technique for which process?

    1. Acquire Program Team

    2. Program Contract Administration

    3. Request Seller Responses

    4. Select Sellers

  50. Dave Kohli, a senior program manager, is telling Kris Mohali, a junior program manager, to check out the recognition and reward system before performing this process. Which process is Mr. Kohli most likely referring to?

    1. Acquire Program Team

    2. Develop Program Team

    3. Human Resource Planning

    4. Contract Negotiation

  51. Phase four of a program life cycle is called:

    1. Deliver incremental benefits

    2. Executing

    3. Program setup

    4. Establish program infrastructure

  52. Which of the following Monitoring and Controlling processes belong to the Integration Management knowledge area?

    1. Resource Control, Issue Management and Control, and Monitor and Control Program Work

    2. Resource Control, Issue Management and Control, and Communication Control

    3. Integrated Change Control, Monitor and Control Program Work, and Performance Reporting

    4. Resource Control, Issue Management and Control, and program Contract Administration

  53. Performance Reporting is a program process that belongs to:

    1. The Monitoring and Controlling process group

    2. The Communication process group

    3. The Executing process group

    4. The Integration Management knowledge area

  54. Program Contract Administration is a program process that belongs to:

    1. The Monitoring and Controlling process group

    2. The Procurement process group

    3. The Executing process group

    4. The Integration Management knowledge area

  55. You are preparing to perform the Resource Control process. Which of the following items is not an input to this process?

    1. Program budget

    2. Expenditure reports

    3. Resource management plan

    4. Performance reports

  56. You are managing the execution of a program. You want to make forecasts about the expected progress and performance of the program. Which process should you perform to accomplish this?

    1. Direct and Manage Program Execution

    2. Monitor and Control Program Work

    3. Performance Reporting

    4. Extrapolate Performance

  57. You are preparing to close the program you have been managing. A program is closed in which phase of the program life cycle?

    1. Phase seven

    2. Phase three

    3. Phase five

    4. Phase six

  58. The Closing process group consists of the following processes:

    1. Close Program, Component Closure, and Contract Closure

    2. Close Program, Administrative Closure, and Contract Closure

    3. Contract Closure, Component Closure, and Transition Benefits

    4. Close Program, Close Projects, and Contract Closure

  59. You are performing the Close Program process. The outputs of this process include:

    1. Certificate of program completion and project archives

    2. Closure report and contract completion certificate

    3. Final performance review report and program archives

    4. Lessons learned and contract termination documents

  60. Lessons learned are an:

    1. Output of the Contract Closure process

    2. Output of the Component Closure process

    3. Output of the Final Performance Review process

    4. Input to and output of the Close Program process

Answers to Assessment Test

  1. C.

    C is the correct answer because matrix management is the management type that involves a team with members from different functional groups. So it can be used to manage both projects and programs. A and B are incorrect because C is a more complete and correct answer. D is incorrect because matrix management is not limited to the executive level. For more information, see Chapter 1.

  2. B.

    B is the correct answer because programs are part of a portfolio, not the other way around. A and C are incorrect because a program can contain projects and program-related operations. D is incorrect because the schedules of the constituent projects are part of the program. For more information, see Chapter 1.

  3. A.

    A is the correct answer because organizational culture is typically reflected by work environment, management style, policies, and values. B and C are incorrect because annual revenues and turnover rates are not elements of organizational culture. D is incorrect because the strategic plan may affect the culture but it is not part of the culture. For more information, see Chapter 1.

  4. A.

    A is the correct answer because the WBS displays the project scope in terms of manageable work components. B, C, and D are incorrect because there are no standard structures with these names in project or program management. For more information, see Chapter 4.

  5. C.

    C is the correct answer because progressive elaboration is the technique used to continually improve and refine a plan in steps as more information becomes available. A and B are incorrect because slow start and continuous improvement can be considered elements of the technique, but the proper name of the technique is progressive elaboration. D is incorrect because the Delphi technique is used to reach consensus among experts by anonymous participation. For more information, see Chapter 1.

  6. A.

    A is the correct answer because a program life cycle is composed of five phases: pre-program setup, program setup, establishing program infrastructure, delivering incremental benefits, and closing the program. B is incorrect because process groups are closely related to the program phases, but it's the program phases that constitute the program life cycle. C is incorrect because a program may use processes from all the nine knowledge areas, but these knowledge areas do not constitute the program life cycle. D is incorrect because there are five phases in the program life cycle and not seven. For more information, see Chapter 1.

  7. C.

    C is the correct answer because the broad management themes that are key to the success of a program and run through the program life cycle are benefits management, program stakeholder management, and program governance. A is incorrect because PMO stands for Program Management Office, which is not a management theme. B is incorrect because the benefits realization plan is not the same thing as benefits management. D is incorrect because it's important to monitor and control a program, but controlling a program is not one of the three broad management themes. For more information, see Chapter 2.

  8. A.

    A is the correct answer because project managers, project team members, and customers are included in the list of a program's key stakeholders. B, C, and D are incorrect because the facility manager, database administrator, and CIO are not key program stakeholders just by virtue of their positions. If one of them is directly involved in the program as a program team member or is on the program governance board, then that individual will be a key stakeholder. For more information, see Chapter 2.

  9. B.

    B is the correct answer because program Initiating is a process group that contains processes to initiate a program. A is incorrect because the five phases of a program life cycle are pre-program setup, program setup, establishing program infrastructure, delivering incremental benefits, and closing the program. C is incorrect because Initiating is a process group and not a knowledge area. D is incorrect because the Initiating process group contains three processes. For more information, see Chapter 2.

  10. D.

    D is the correct answer because phase one of the program life cycle is called pre-program setup. A and B are incorrect because Initiating and planning are process groups and not phases. C is incorrect because program setup is phase two (not one) of the program life cycle. For more information, see Chapter 2.

  11. A.

    A is the correct answer because the program Initiating process group consists of the Initiate Program, Authorize Projects, and Initiate Team processes. B is incorrect because the program charter is developed by using the Initiate Program process. C is incorrect because there is no standard process called Authorize Program. The program is authorized during the Initiate Program process. D is incorrect because the Scope Definition process belongs to the Planning process group. For more information, see Chapter 2.

  12. D.

    D is the correct answer because the business case is an input to the Initiate Program process. A is incorrect because the business case is not an input to the Authorize Projects process, though the strategic plan is. B is incorrect because there is no standard program process called Develop Program Charter. C is incorrect because the Initiate Team process does not take the business case as an input. For more information, see Chapter 3.

  13. B.

    B is the correct answer because the detailed program scope statement is prepared during the Scope Definition process. A, C, and D are incorrect answers because all these items are included in the output of the Initiate Program process. For more information, see Chapter 3.

  14. A.

    A is the correct answer because program reporting requirements is an output of the Authorize Projects process. B and D are incorrect because there are no standard program processes called Authorize Programs and Initiate Projects. C is incorrect because program reporting requirements are not an output of the Initiate Program process. For more information, see Chapter 3.

  15. B.

    B is the correct answer because the program directory is an output of the Initiate Team process. A and C are incorrect because the program directory is not an output of either of these processes. D is incorrect because there is no standard program process called Initiate Projects. For more information, see Chapter 3.

  16. B.

    B is the correct answer because the Delphi technique, used to reach consensus among experts by having them participate anonymously, is not a common tool used in most of the program management processes. A, C, and D are incorrect answers because tools and techniques common to most of the program management processes include expert judgment, meetings, reviews, and policies and procedures. For more information, see Chapter 3.

  17. A.

    A is the correct answer because benefits analysis, expert judgment, and project selection methods are used as tools and techniques in the Initiate Program process. B and D are incorrect because the benefits realization plan and projects selection criteria are outputs of the Initiate Program process. C is incorrect because the Ishikawa diagram is a quality tool used in quality control and is usually not used to initiate a program. For more information, see Chapter 3.

  18. C.

    C is the correct answer because phase two of the program life cycle is called program setup. A and B are incorrect because Initiating and Planning are process groups and not phases. D is incorrect because pre-program setup is phase one (and not phase two) of the program life cycle. For more information, see Chapter 4.

  19. A.

    A is the correct answer because the Planning processes in the Integration Management knowledge area are Develop Program Management Plan, Resource Planning, Interface Planning, and Transition Planning. B is incorrect because Quality Planning belongs to Quality Management and not to Integration Management. C is incorrect because Plan Program Contracting belongs to Procurement Management and not to Integration Management. D is incorrect because Integrated Change Control belongs to the Executing process group and not to the Planning process group. For more information, see Chapter 4.

  20. A.

    A is the correct answer because Integration Management contains the following Planning processes: Develop Program Management Plan, Interface Planning, Resource Planning, and Transition Planning. B, C, and D are incorrect answers because Transition Planning belongs to Integration Management. For more information, see Chapter 4.

  21. B.

    B is the correct answer because the Planning processes in the Scope Management knowledge area are Scope Definition and Program Work Breakdown Structure. A is incorrect because Scope Control belongs to the Monitoring and Controlling process group and not to the Planning process group. C is incorrect because Schedule Development belongs to Time Management and not to Scope Management. D is incorrect because there is no standard program process called Plan Scope. For more information, see Chapter 4.

  22. B.

    B is the correct answer because the resource management plan and resource requirements are two output items of the Resource Planning process. A and D are incorrect answers because Activity Resource Estimating and Resource Management are not standard program management processes. C is an incorrect answer because resource requirements is not an output of the create PWBS process. For more information, see Chapter 4.

  23. D.

    D is the correct answer because the program scope statement is an output of the Scope Definition process. A, B, and C are incorrect answers because all of these are input items to the Scope Definition process. For more information, see Chapter 4.

  24. C.

    C is the correct answer because the scope management plan is an output of the Scope Definition process. A and B are incorrect because there are no standard program processes called Scope Planning and Develop Scope Management Plan. D is incorrect because the Create Program Work Breakdown Structure (Create PWBS) process is used to develop a PWBS, and it uses the scope management plan as an input. For more information, see Chapter 4.

  25. B.

    B is the correct answer because the two output items of Scope Definition are the program scope statement and the scope management plan. A is incorrect because the PWBS is an output of the Create PWBS process. C is incorrect because the preliminary program scope statement is an input to the Scope Definition process. D is incorrect because the benefits realization plan is an input to the Scope Definition process. For more information, see Chapter 4.

  26. A.

    A is the correct answer because program packages are the components at the lowest level of a program WBS (PWBS) hierarchy. B is incorrect because work packages are the components at the lowest level of a project WBS hierarchy. C and D are incorrect because these are not the correct terms for the components at the lowest level of a project or program WBS hierarchy. Work packages can be drawn from deliverables, and can be broken further into schedule activities. For more information, see Chapter 4.

  27. C.

    C is the correct answer because the Pareto diagram is a quality control tool. A, B, and D are incorrect because these are valid tools and techniques used in the Interface Planning process. For more information, see Chapter 4.

  28. A.

    A is the correct answer because a resource histogram, a graph that displays resource requirements as a function of some parameter such as time, can be used in the Resource Planning process. B is incorrect because there is no standard program process called Resource Optimization. C and D are incorrect because these processes don't use a resource histogram as a tool. For more information, see Chapter 4.

  29. D.

    D is the correct answer because Scope Definition generates the program scope statement, which is used to create the PWBS and to perform Transition Planning. A is incorrect because Schedule Development uses the PWBS as an input, which is generated by the Create PWBS process. B is incorrect because Transition Planning uses the program scope statement as an input, which is generated by the Scope Definition process. C is incorrect because Create PWBS uses the program scope statement as an input, which is generated by the Scope Definition process. For more information, see Chapter 4.

  30. C.

    C is the correct answer because Schedule Development generates a program schedule and a schedule management plan. A, B, and D are incorrect because these are not the names of standard processes in program management. For more information, see Chapter 5.

  31. B.

    B is the correct answer because the organizational chart is an output of the Human Resource Planning process. A and C are incorrect because the organizational chart is not an output of either of these processes. D is incorrect because there is no standard program process called Organizational Planning. For more information, see Chapter 5.

  32. C.

    C is the correct answer because make-or-buy decisions are an output of the Plan Program Purchases and Acquisitions process. A and B are incorrect because neither of these processes generate make-or-buy decisions as an output. D is incorrect because there is no standard program process called Procurement Planning. The correct name of the process is Plan Program Purchases and Acquisitions. For more information, see Chapter 5.

  33. C.

    C is the correct answer because the ADM can be used only to display finish-to-start dependencies, and the PDM can be used to display dependencies of any type: finish-to-start, finish-to-finish, start-to-start, or start-to-finish. A and B are incorrect because you can use either the ADM or the PDM to display finish-to-start dependencies. D is incorrect because there is no standard network diagramming method called the critical diagramming method. For more information, see Chapter 5.

  34. C.

    C is the correct answer because the program budget is an output of the Cost Estimating and Budgeting process. A is incorrect because there is no standard program process called develop program budget. B and D are incorrect because these processes do not generate the program budget as an output. For more information, see Chapter 5.

  35. A.

    A is the correct answer because this is the most suitable type of contract when you do not know the actual number of items that you will need to procure. B is incorrect because you do not know the actual amount of procurement at the time of the contract; so the most suitable contract is T&M. C and D are incorrect because you cannot calculate the lump sum or fixed price, as the actual amount of needed items is not known. For more information, see Chapter 5.

  36. A.

    A is the correct answer because the basic source of risks is uncertainty. B, C, and D are incorrect because the basic source of risks is uncertainty. For more information, see Chapter 6.

  37. D.

    D is the correct answer because issuing an RFI, RFP, and RFQ are part of the Request Seller Responses process. A, B, and C are incorrect answers because all these are parts of Communication Planning. For more information, see Chapter 6.

  38. A.

    A is the correct answer because the program scope statement and product description are inputs to Quality Planning. B and C are incorrect because operational definitions and quality checklists are outputs of Quality Planning. D is incorrect because the program cost of quality and quality metrics are outputs of Quality Planning. For more information, see Chapter 6.

  39. B.

    B is the correct answer because quality metrics are an output of Quality Planning. A is incorrect because quality metrics are an output of Quality Planning, and not an input. C is incorrect because quality metrics are input to Perform Quality Assurance. D is incorrect because quality metrics are an input to Perform Quality Assurance and not to Perform Quality Control. For more information, see Chapter 6.

  40. C.

    C is the correct answer because a risk response plan is an output of the Risk Management Planning and Analysis process. A, B, and D are incorrect because there are no standard program processes with these names. However, risk identification, qualitative risk analysis, and risk response planning are all parts of the same process called Risk Management Planning and Analysis. For more information, see Chapter 6.

  41. A.

    A is the correct answer because the contract statement of work is an output of the Plan Program Purchases and Acquisitions process. B is incorrect because the contract statement of work is an input to Plan Program Contracting. C is incorrect because the Develop Program Management Plan process does not generate a contract statement of work. D is incorrect because there is no standard program process called Develop Statement of Work. For more information, see Chapter 5.

  42. B.

    B is the correct answer because the procurement management plan is an input to Plan Program Contracting. A is incorrect because the procurement management plan is an output of Plan Program Purchases and Acquisitions. C and D are incorrect because the procurement management plan is not an input to these processes. For more information, see Chapter 5.

  43. B.

    B is the correct answer because phase three of the program life cycle is about establishing the infrastructure for the program. A is incorrect because Initiating is a process groups and not phase. C is incorrect because program setup is phase two (and not three) of the program life cycle. D is incorrect because pre-program setup is phase one (and not three) of the program life cycle. For more information, see Chapter 7.

  44. A.

    A is the correct answer because the Executing process group has only one process that belongs to Integration Management, and its name is Direct and Manage Program Execution. B is incorrect because Information Distribution belongs to Communication Management. C is incorrect because Develop Program Team belongs to Human Resource Management. D is incorrect because Perform Quality Assurance belongs to Quality Management. For more information, see Chapter 7.

  45. D.

    D is the correct answer because Cost Estimating and Budgeting belongs to the Planning process group. A, B, and C are incorrect because these processes belong to the Executing process group. For more information, see Chapter 7.

  46. C.

    C is the correct answer because the output items of the Develop Program Team process are team performance assessment, team improvement, updates to training records, and updates to team competency assessments. A and D are incorrect answers because the training plan and training records are input to the Develop Program Team process. B is an incorrect answer because the staffing management plan is an input to the Develop Program Team process. For more information, see Chapter 7.

  47. B.

    B is the correct answer because the Acquire Program Team process belongs to the Executing process group and the Human Resource Management knowledge area. A is incorrect because the team-related process in the Initiating process group is called Initiate Team. C is incorrect because there is no process group called Human Resource. There is a knowledge area called Human Resource Management. D is incorrect because the Planning process group does not contain the Acquire Program Team process. For more information, see Chapter 7.

  48. A.

    A is the correct answer because work results are an output of the Direct and Manage Program Execution process. B, C, and D are incorrect because work results are not an output of any of these processes. For more information, see Chapter 7.

  49. D.

    D is the correct answer because contract negotiations are conducted during the process of selecting sellers. A is incorrect because contract negotiations is not a standard too used in the Acquire Program Team process. B is incorrect because Contract Administration starts after we already have a contract. C is incorrect because the Request Seller Response process is too early for conducting contract negotiations. For more information, see Chapter 7.

  50. B.

    B is the correct answer because the recognition and reward system is a tool or technique used in the Develop Program Team process. A and C are incorrect because the recognition and reward system is not used during these processes. D is incorrect because there is no standard program process called Contract Negotiation. For more information, see Chapter 7.

  51. 51. A.

    A is the correct answer because phase four of the program life cycle is called delivering incremental benefits. B is incorrect because Executing is a process group and not a phase. C is incorrect because program setup is phase two (and not phase four) of the program life cycle. D is incorrect because establish program infrastructure is phase three (and not phase four) of the program life cycle. For more information, see Chapter 8.

  52. A.

    A is the correct answer because the processes of the Monitoring and Controlling process group that map to Integration Management are Integrated Change Control, Monitor and Control Program Work, Resource Control, and Issue Management and Control. B is incorrect because Communication Control belongs to Communication Management. C is incorrect because Performance Reporting belongs to Communication Management. D is incorrect because program Contract Administration belongs to Procurement Management. For more information, see Chapter 8.

  53. A.

    A is the correct answer because Performance Reporting is part of the Monitoring and Controlling process group. B is incorrect because there is no process group called Communication; there is a knowledge area, however, called Communication Management. C and D are incorrect because the Performance Reporting process maps to neither the Executing process group nor the Integration Management knowledge area. For more information, see Chapter 8.

  54. A.

    A is the correct answer because Contract Administration is part of the Monitoring and Controlling process group. B is incorrect because there is no process group called Procurement; there is a knowledge area, however, called Procurement Management. C and D are incorrect because the Contract Administration process maps to neither the Executing process group nor the Integration Management knowledge area. For more information, see Chapter 8.

  55. B.

    B is the correct answer because expenditure reports are an output of the Resource Control process. A, C, and D are incorrect answers because all these are included in the input to the Resource Control process. For more information, see Chapter 8.

  56. B.

    B is the correct answer because forecasts are an output of the Monitor and Control Program Work process. A and C are incorrect because these processes do not have forecasts as an output. D is incorrect because there is no standard program process called Extrapolate Performance. For more information, see Chapter 8.

  57. C.

    C is the correct answer because closing the program is phase five of the program life cycle. A and D are incorrect because the program life cycle consists of five phases. B is incorrect because phase three of the program life cycle is establishing program infrastructure. For more information, see Chapter 9.

  58. A.

    A is the correct answer because the Closing process group consists of the Close Program, Component Closure, and Contract Closure processes. B is incorrect because there is no standard program process called Administrative Closure. C is incorrect because there is no standard program process called Transition Benefits. D is incorrect because there is no standard program process called Close Projects. For more information, see Chapter 9.

  59. C.

    C is the correct answer because the key outputs of the Close Program process include a final performance review report and program archives. A is incorrect because project archives are an output of the Component Closure process. B and D are incorrect because the contract completion certificate and contract termination documents are an output of the Contract Closure process. For more information, see Chapter 9.

  60. D.

    D is the correct answer because lessons learned from closing the constituent projects are an input to the Close Program process, and the lessons learned from the program are an output of the Close Program process. A and B are incorrect because lessons learned is not an output of the Contract Closure or the Component Closure process. C is incorrect because there is no standard program process called Final Performance Review. For more information, see Chapter 9.